Discussion Forum

TOPIC: Spain

Subject: Spain
Posted: November 9, 2008 9:03 PM MST
Comments: I am a native of Spain having been born in Asturias in the Northern part of the Country. My name is Antonio Jose Valdes y deDiego. I have moved recently to New Mexico, Las Vegas, as a retiree and I am already fascinated by the rich cultural heritage of this land. I read with a great deal of interest Manuel Cabeza de Baca\'s account of the Silva gang and how they terrorized Las Vegas area for a period of time. I also read with a great deal of interest the story of one of the bandits as coincidentally has exactly my same name ( save for the mother\'s name which I believe isn\'t customary in this land. I am pretty sure my ancestors were here during the explorations and settlements and anybody interested in communicating regarding possible ancestry links are welcome. I would also like to raise the issue of why the Valdes and Valdez? I have my own theory and accounts. Thank you.
Posted By: Antonio J Valdes

Subject: Valdes v Valdez
Posted: December 20, 2008 8:01 AM MST
Comments: The older and more accepted (correct?) spelling of the name is Valdes. Probably due more to literacy issues many Spanish names in NM took on the patronymical "ez" ending. For example, Benavidez versus Benavides, Chavez v Chaves, etc. In American Spanish each is pronounced the same.
Posted By: Samuel Dominguez

Subject: Valdes vs Valdez
Posted: December 21, 2008 10:57 PM MST
Comments: Mr. Dominguez, thank you for your interest on this issue. Valdes is the original name and comes from a region ( County) in Asturias, Spain. I could explain to you how it came about if you are interested. For example, your family name, originally ending in a \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\"z\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\", means the son of Domingo. There are a number of reasons for changes in the spelling of original Spanish names. One is simply misspelling , widespread due to lack of interest. The second is more subtle and may appear to be offensive although I don\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\'t consider it to be. Many Spaniards during the different \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\"entradas\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\" (explorations) into the northern territories( north of what is today Mexico,East of what is today California and north of what is today Florida)had no women with them and elected to take native partners ( although they were already married! nothing new) and have descendants. In order to differentiate the out of wedlock children they slightly changed some letters in their family names while still accepting them as their descendants thus differentiating the \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\"legals\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\" and \\\\\\\\\\\\\\\"nonlegals\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\" while still recognizing them as their children. Complicated? We need to go back to the codes of honor of those days. Thank you again for your interest.
Posted By: Antonio J Valdes y deDiego

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